After having read “The Abolition of Man,” by C.S Lewis and “Leviathan” by Thomas Hobbes this is the questioned probed:
C.S. Lewis could argue that Thomas Hobbes is a “conditioner,” whose aim is (whether he avows it or not) the “Abolition of man.”

What evidence could C.S. Lewis draw from “Leviathan” to support this description of the substance and implications of Hobbes’s argument? Evaluate this claim. Do you agree or disagree—in part or wholly—with it? Explain your assessment.