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  2. Why does Descartes, in Meditation 1, need the Dream Argument to show that he cannot trust the deliverances of his senses if he already has established that his senses sometimes deceive him?

Why does Descartes, in Meditation 1, need the Dream Argument to show that he cannot trust the deliverances of his senses if he already has established that his senses sometimes deceive him?

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Why does Descartes, in Meditation 1, need the Dream Argument to show that he cannot trust the deliverances of his senses if he already has established that his senses sometimes deceive him?


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